Apparently, the translators of the Septuagint were influenced by the Egyptian view of cosmology, which embraced the notion of the heavens being a stone vault (after all, they were doing their translation work in Egypt!). īut which is the correct term to use? Where did the word firmament come from? The Septuagint (a Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures produced by Jewish scholars in the third century BC at the request of the Egyptian pharaoh) translates raqia into the Greek word stereoma, which connotes a solid structure. And there was evening and there was morning, a second day. Then God said, “Let there be an expanse in the midst of the waters, and let it separate the waters from the waters.” God made the expanse, and separated the waters which were below the expanse from the waters which were above the expanse and it was so. However, other versions of the Bible, such as the New American Standard, translate raqia as expanse: Genesis 1:6–8 (NASB) Therefore, the Bible is not the inspired Word of God, and we don’t need to listen to its teaching. They say that the word firmament reflects the idea of firmness, and this reflects erroneous cosmology. The argument from these Bible critics is that the ancient Hebrews believed in a solid dome with the stars embedded in the dome. So the evening and the morning were the second day. Then God said, “Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters, and let it divide the waters from the waters.” Thus God made the firmament, and divided the waters which were under the firmament from the waters which were above the firmament and it was so.
Several Bible versions, such as the New King James, translate this word as firmament: Genesis 1:6–8 One of these criticisms centers on the Hebrew word raqia used in the creation account of Genesis 1. Critics of the Bible have often said that the writings of Genesis reflect an “unscientific view” of the universe-one that reflected the cosmology of the ancient world.